Final dapat 72,3
1 In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
client
server
pruning
transparent***
2 What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.***
Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.***
3 Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
LCP tests the quality of the link.***
LCP manages compression on the link***
Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.
4 Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.***
All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
5 Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
RB has the lowest priority value.***
RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.
6 A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
VPN *******
Frame Relay
PPP with CHAP authentication
PPP with PAP authentication
7 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
VTP V2 mode is disabled.
SW3 is configured as transparent mode.***
The number of existing VLANs does not match.
The configuration revision number does not match.
8 Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down.***
A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.***
Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.
9 Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
memory size
bridge priority***
number of ports
switch location
switching speed
base MAC address***
10 A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.254.0***
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
11 What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
feasible distance of the successor
reported distance of the successor
feasible distance of the feasible successor***
reported distance of the feasible successor
12 Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
R1
R2***
R3
ISP
13 What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
faster communication with server farms
stronger security against malicious attacks***
faster communication with Internet destinations
enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links
14 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
R2: Fa0/0 inbound
R1: S0/1/0 outbound***
R1: S0/0/1 inbound
R2: S0/0/1 outbound
R2: Fa0/0 outbound
15 Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
C, B, A, D***
D, C, B, A
A, B, C, D
A, C, B, D
B, C, A, D
16 What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.***
A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.***
The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.
17 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
Router B has a fully converged topology table.
Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.***
18 Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.***
RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.***
RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.***
19 Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
The IP address is already in use.
The technician is using a network address.
The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26.***
The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.
20 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.***
A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.
21 Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.***
The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.**********
The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
The outside interface has not been defined on R1.
22 Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
no set loopback
incorrect subnet mask on R2***
incompatible bandwidth
incorrect IP address on R1
incompatible encapsulation
23 Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to activate looped paths throughout the network
to determine the root bridge***
to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode***
24 When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
The key passes between routers in plain text.
The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
The key passes between routers in encrypted form.***
The key is never transmitted.***
The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.
25 Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.***
No host can reach any other host.
Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
All hosts can reach each other.
26 Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
Router(config-router)# null 0 route
Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
Router(config-router)# no auto-summary***
27 Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
There is a network statement missing.***
Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.***
The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
/23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.
28 Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
H1-172.18.0.10/16***
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16
H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
29 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
192.168.13.4/30
192.168.13.5/30***
192.168.13.7/30
192.168.13.58/30
192.168.13.61/27
192.168.13.63/27
30 After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets***
add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic***
deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
connect remote locations directly to the intranet
configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination
31 Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit.***
It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.
32 A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
TCP
UDP***
PPP
HDLC
33 A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply***
access-list 101 deny tcp any any established
34 Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure***
to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network
35 What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
provides segmentation of broadcast domains***
allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location***
prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment
36 Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
10.200.11.69***
10.200.16.1
10.200.0.255***
10.201.0.55
10.200.15.240***
10.200.30.29
37 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.***
Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.
38 Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1***
R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
39 Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.***
The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.
40 What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
0.0.0.0***
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.255
0.0.31.255
255.255.255.240
0.0.0.31***
41 If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
leased line
cell switched
circuit switched
packet switched***
42 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/23***
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/25
43 Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
R1***
R2
R3
R4***
44 Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0 interface.
The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.***
The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.***
The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.
45 Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS***.
The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.***
46 Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30.***
RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.***
RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.***
RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.
47 Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
The first configuration command overwrites the second command.***
The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.
48 Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
192.168.1.0/22
192.168.4.0/21
192.168.6.0/23***
192.168.8.0/21
192.168.4.0/22
49 Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
Untagged traffic slows the switching process down.***
The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN.***
50 Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network. After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
VTP version mismatch ***
VTP domain name mismatch
VTP revision number mismatch
Time synchronization problems
51 Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
A***
B
C***
D
E
F
52 Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router***
It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.
53 The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
Static routes are more secure.***
Static routes converge faster.
Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.***
54 What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN***
allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN***
55 Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.***
Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse.***
By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.
56 Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
VPN
NCP
TDM
STP
STDM***
57 Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
a child route that is defined
a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path***
the result of the no auto-summary command on a router
58 If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
prior to link establishment
during the link establishment phase
before the network layer protocol configuration begins
after the network layer protocol configuration has ended *******
Jumat, 13 Juni 2008
CCNA 3 Discovery module 9
| An employee called the help desk to report a laptop that could not access a web-based application on the Internet. The help desk technician asked the employee to open a Windows command prompt and type the ipconfig /all command. Which problem-solving technique did the technician choose? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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| The line protocol of the local router is now up. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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| The username ’Goleta’ is configured locally. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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| The command ppp authentication pap is configured on both routers. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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| The local router requested to terminate the session | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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| There is an ACL applied, making the destination host unreachable. |
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| The ACL is applied to the interface in the wrong direction. |
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| The implicit deny any any is blocking all access to email. |
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| The protocol type specified in the ACL should be TCP, not IP. |
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| The ACL is applied to the wrong interface, but the right direction. |
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| The ACL is applied to the wrong interface and the wrong direction. |
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| The permit ip any any statement allows network 192.168.1.0 access. |
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| The command was entered on router R1. |
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| The command was entered on router R3. |
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| The command could have been entered on either R1 or R2. |
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| The router was assigned the broadcast address. |
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| The host is not in the same subnet as the switch and router. |
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| The router interface is in the wrong subnet. |
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| The host was assigned a network address. |
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| One of the two client mode switches must be reconfigured to Transparent mode. |
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| Each switch must be synchronized to the network time server. |
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| The VTP domain names are different. |
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| VTP passwords must be set. |
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| The configuration revision numbers are all the same. |
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| The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to network 10.1.1.0/24. |
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| The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to the Internet. |
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| The packet is routed to R1 and then forwarded out Fa0/0 on R1. |
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| The packet will not be routed because R2 does not have a valid default route |
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| RIPv1 does not support VLSM. |
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| Router R2 does not have RIP correctly configured. |
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| Router R3 is missing a network statement for network 10.0.0.0. |
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| There is an addressing problem on the link between routers R2 and R3 |
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| What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing? |
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| The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number. |
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| The physical interface must have an IP address configured. |
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| The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet. |
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| The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface. |
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| A network at a large building failed, causing a severe disruption in business activities. The problem was eventually detected and resolved by replacing a piece of failed network equipment. Investigation led to the conclusion that a network design problem was the main cause of the disruption. Loss of a single piece of equipment should not have been able to cause such a large problem. What two terms best describe this type of design weakness? (Choose two.) |
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| bottleneck |
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| limited availability |
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| limited scalability |
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| large failure domain |
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| single point of failure |
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| limited staff capabilities |
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| Which two statements describe when a network administrator should perform a network baseline? (Choose two.) |
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| It should be done monthly as a minimum standard. |
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| It should be performed when all switch Cisco IOS versions are upgraded. |
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| It should be done when all network printers are upgraded to a new model. |
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| It should be done when the network is performing at normal activity levels. |
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| It should be done whenever an SLA has been signed with a new service provider. |
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| There is congestion on the 10.10.2.0 network. |
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| The EIGRP process number on R2 is incorrect. |
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| The Fa0/0 interface on R2 is shut down. |
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| The Fa0/0 interface on R2 has an incorrect IP address or subnet mask. |
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| Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1. |
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| One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface. |
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| The serial link between the two routers is unstable. |
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| VLSM is not supported by RIPv1. |
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| The enterprise mail server software recently went through a minor update. A network administrator notices an excessive amount of traffic between a database server and the newly updated mail server, compared to the baseline data. What is the first action the administrator should do to investigate the problem? |
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| Wait to see if the recent update will stabilize after a while. |
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| Redo the baseline data to include the minor upgrade. |
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| Check the log to see what software components are producing the excess traffic. |
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| Check for viruses and spyware on the database server. |
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| It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RB. |
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| It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RC. |
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| It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.4/30. |
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| It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.8/30. |
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| password mismatch for PPP authentication |
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| username mismatch for PPP authentication |
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| encapsulation method mismatch for PPP authentication |
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| authentication method mismatch for PPP authentication |
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| Port 0/4 is not active. |
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| Port 0/4 must be a member of VLAN1. |
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| Port 0/4 is configured in access mode. |
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| Port 0/4 is configured as a trunk port. |
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Senin, 09 Juni 2008
module 6 CCNA 3 Discovery
CCNA 3module6
1
Refer to the exhibit. What statement describes the DR/BDR relationship of the HQ router?
HQ is the DR.
HQ is the BDR.
HQ is a DROTHER.***
HQ is a member of an NBMA network.
2
Which two features are associated with Frame Relay OSPF point-to-multipoint environments? (Choose two.)
The OSPF priority value determines the active DR on the Frame Relay link.
OSPF neighbor routers are statically defined.***
The link types are identified as broadcast multiaccess.
The BDR will have a router ID whose value is greater than the DR router ID.
3
Refer to the exhibit. How was the OSPF default gateway entry for R2 determined?
Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements.
A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2.
The default-information originate command is applied on R1.***
The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1 and R2.
The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2.
4
What is always required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
designated routers
a backup designated router
neighbor adjacencies***
an NBMA network topology
links that are configured on the 224.0.0.0 network
5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented OSPF and the network has converged. If all router interfaces are enabled and functional, what route will OSPF view as lowest cost when moving frames from Host3 to Host1?
R3 to R4 to R1
R3 to R1
R3 to R2 to R1***
R3 to R5 to R2 to R1
6
Refer to the exhibit. Which commands configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
router ospf 1***
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
7
Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement configures the home router to allow all the interfaces to participate in OSPF?
network 10.0.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
network 10.8.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.8.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0***
network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.12.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
8
Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections?
A new DR/BDR election occurs each time a new OSPF neighbor is added.
The router with the highest OSPF priority setting wins the election for DR.
The default priority value for a router connected to a multi-access network is 0.
The router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DR when the default priority values are used.
9
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator would like only the 172.16.32.0 network advertised to Router1. Which OSPF network command accomplishes this?
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.15 area 0
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 0***
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
10
Which two statements describe the operation of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
All routers in the same area have identical link-state databases when converged.***
Routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
Link-state routers send frequent periodic updates of the entire routing table.
Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver and receive LSAs.
Calculating the shortest path for each destination is accomplished with the SPF algorithm.***
11
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, and C are part of the existing OSPF network. Router D has been added to the network. All routers are running OSPF and have the indicated priorities applied to the interface. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after router D is added to the existing network?
An election is forced and router D wins the DR election.
The DR and BDR do not change until the next election.***
An election is forced and the existing BDR becomes the DR.
The router with the highest router ID becomes the new BDR.
12
Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are always optional.
Elections are required in all WAN networks.
Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.***
Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.***
13
Refer to the exhibit. As part of an OSPF network, R1 and R2 are trying to become adjacent neighbors. Although it appears that the two systems are communicating, neither of the routing tables include OSPF routes received from its neighbor. What could be responsible for this situation?
R1 and R2 are not on the same subnet.
The Process IDs on each router do not match.
The timer intervals on the routers do not match.***
The value set for the Transmit Delay time on both routers is too low.
14
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the value 128 shown in bold?
It is the OSPF cost metric.***
It is the OSPF administrative distance.
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the distance in hops to the network.
It is the value assigned to an interface that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the metric.
15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands added on router B?
allows router A to form an adjacency with router B
provides a stable OSPF router ID on router B***
provides a method of testing router traffic
creates the OSPF adjacency table on router B
16
Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is entered into the router. Why does network 10.16.1.64/30 appear in the routing table in addition to network 10.16.1.64/27?
The router views 10.16.1.64/30 and 10.16.1.64/27 as two different networks. ***
The static route is used as a backup route for packets destined for 10.16.1.64/27.
The AD for static routes is lower than the AD for OSPF routes.
The static route metric is lower than the OSPF metric for the 10.16.1.64/27 network.
17
What is the primary difference between link-state protocols and distance vector protocols with regard to route calculation?
Distance vector protocols take existing routes from their neighbors and add to them. Link-state protocols independently calculate full routes.***
Link-state protocols calculate and pass full routing tables to all routers in their associated areas, and distance vector protocols do not.
When determining invalid routes, link-state protocols use split horizon for all route computations. Distance vector protocols use reverse poisoning.
Distance vector protocols require more CPU and RAM for route calculations than link-state protocols require.
18
What range of networks are advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24***
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
19
Refer to the exhibit. When establishing adjacency relationships, which IP address would router A use to send hello packets to router B?
10.11.0.1
10.11.0.2
10.11.0.255
224.0.0.5***
255.255.255.255
20
Refer to the exhibit. Which router will be elected the DR and which will become the BDR?
R1 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
R1 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.***
R2 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.
R2 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.
R3 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
R3 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.
21
When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks?
simpler configuration
reduction of router processing requirements
isolation of network instability ***
less complex network planning
22
What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.***
After the initial LSA flooding, routers generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.***
A link-state routing protocol requires less router processor power.
23
If a network has converged, what is true about the link-state database held by each router in the same OSPF area?
Each router has a link-state database containing the same status information.***
Each router has a different link-state database depending on its position within the network.
The link-state database is stored in a designated router and is accessed by each router in the area as needed.
The link-state database in each router only contains information about adjacent routers and the status of their links.
24
Refer to the exhibit. RTRC was recently configured and is not sending the proper OSPF routes to RTRB, as shown in the RTRB routing table. Based on the RTRC configuration, what is most likely the problem?
RTRC interfaces are administratively shut down.
The OSPF process ID for RTRC does not match the process ID used on RTRB.
The interface addresses on RTRC overlap with other addresses in the network.
The OSPF routing configuration on RTRC has a missing or incorrect network statement.***
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